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MCAT – Diagnostic Test – Biology Section

MCAT – Diagnostic Test – Biology Section

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1. The quality of DNA-labeled affinity probes is critical in DNA-assisted protein analyses, such as proximity ligation assays (PLA) and immuno-PCR. Efficient, high-performance methods are therefore required for isolation of pure conjugates from reactions where DNA strands have been coupled to antibodies or recombinant affinity reagents. An important aspect of the synthesis of these molecules is sequentially removing any unconjugated affinity reagents and remaining free oligonucleotides from conjugation reactions, as shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1 Illustration of purification of affinity binder-oligonucleotide conjugates

First, the conjugation is performed in solution by mixing antibodies with an excess of azide-modified oligonucleotides. The resulting mix containing antibody-DNA conjugates and remaining free antibodies and oligonucleotides is incubated, and the products are immobilized on agarose beads. After washes to remove unconjugated antibodies, the captured antibody-DNA conjugates along with unconjugated oligonucleotides are both released by enzymatic cleavage using the restriction enzyme MlyI that cleaves at the border of the complementary region (Figure 2) between the capture and conjugate oligonucleotides to release single-stranded DNA-coupled conjugates. The cleavage process required both ATP and S-adenosyl-L-met in order to run to completion. The eluate was then captured on protein G beads and washes were conducted to remove any free oligonucleotides with no antibody conjugated. Finally, purified conjugates were eluted from the protein G beads by lowering the pH.

These purified high-grade probes extend the capabilities of traditional immunoassays to allow direct detection of proteins and modifications with high specificity and sensitivity. With them, designated protein targets can be readily detected and localized with single molecule resolution and objectively quantified in unmodified cells and tissues.

 

Figure 2 Enzymatic cleavage by MlyI

Question 1

In vitro, free oligonucleotides, such as mRNA transcripts, have a short half-life in the cytosol. What mechanism is used to stabilize these molecules?

 

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2. Given the locations of the MlyI cleavage site and recognition sequence, MlyI is NOT a:

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3. Which nucleophile was likely used to prepare the oligonucleotides used in the purification procedure?

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4. Some proteins and antibodies are susceptible to pH-induced damage. In order to prevent this damage, what would be the most effective additional step to perform at the end of the elution process?

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5. Which step of the procedure corresponds to the release of DNA-coupled conjugates?

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6. Passage 2 (Questions 6 – 10)

The human digestive tract is fundamentally a long tube running through the body, with dedicated sections that are capable of digesting material put in at the proximal end, extracting any useful components from it, then expelling the waste products at the distal end.

The small intestine is the site where most chemical digestion is carried out, and where virtually all the absorption of useful materials occurs. The intestines also have a smooth muscle wall with two layers of muscle, which enables the generation of rhythmic contractions that force products of digestion through the intestine. To allow for absorption and secretion, specialized zones known as macula communicans exist between the muscle cells. These directly connect the cytoplasm of two cells, which allows various molecules and ions to pass freely between them.

In the large intestine, these connections allow for the movement of ions and fluids. For example, if waste is too solid, it cannot move fluidly and can result in blockage. To prevent this, Cl ions can be secreted into the lumen. Cations and water will follow the chloride into the lumen by passing through intercellular spaces. This method of transport contrasts typical transcellular transport, where substances travel through the cell membrane.

Diseases of the intestines are often due to chronic inflammation, which can arise from imbalances in the regulation of fluids and solute movement. Elevated levels of enzymes like thymidine kinase are often used to predict the risk of colon cancer.

In which of the following cell processes does thymidine kinase most likely play a role?

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7. Chitin’s flexibility and strength make it favorable as a biodegradable surgical thread. All of the following describe the portion of a chitin molecule shown below EXCEPT:

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8. Patients with excess fat are more likely to require larger therapeutic doses of which vitamin?

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9. Which of the following will cause a blood pH of 8.2?

 

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10. The data in the passage suggest that the level of CWP begins to drop most quickly during which time period of encystation?

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11. With which of the following do the arginine side chains found on histone proteins most likely have the strongest interactions?

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12. Given passage information, Giardia most likely transports which of the following proteins to the extracellular surface?

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13. The functions of the ESVs of Giardia most closely resemble what cell organelle?

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Passage 5 (Questions 24 – 28)

14. Giardiasis, caused by the intestinal flagellate protozoa Giardia lamblia, is a common intestinal disease. Giardia are unique in their possession of two nuclei that are similar in appearance, DNA content, and transcription. Usually G. lamblia are transmitted by water contaminated with cysts. G. lamblia have seven complex genotypes, but only two genotypes cause human infections. The illness is transmitted by differentiation into infective cysts. Three known cyst wall proteins (CWPs) are synthesized in a concerted manner during differentiation into cysts.

Encystation specific vesicles (ESVs) give the organism the ability to modify or partition cyst wall cargo during secretory transport. These organelles aid the accumulation and maturation of cyst wall material (CWM) composed of at least 3 cyst wall proteins (cwp1-3) complexed with β-(1-3)-N-acetyl-D-galactosamine polymer. CWPs are eventually deposited in the plasma membrane of the host’s intestinal cells. Trafficking of mature CWM from ESVs to the cell surface, where it forms the cyst wall, is rapid. During cyst formation, a round of DNA replication occurs. Then, nuclear replication takes place, with the DNA divided equally among the resulting 4 nuclei, followed by a second round of DNA replication.

Figure 1 Regulation of cwp abundance within 2-hour transitions during the 14-hour encystation time-course (hpie = hours post initiation of encystations. N = total protein in sample)

At any given time throughout the parasite’s lifespan, only one cwp gene is expressed. During an infection, however, the particular cwp gene that is transcribed regularly alternates in a process termed antigenic variation. Both expressed and silent cwp genes are located in the nuclear periphery, but in different regions. In expressed cwp genes, promoter histone H4 is acetylated on arginine 6 and trimethylated on arginine 2; in contrast, silent cwp genes include a trimethylated histone H4 at arginine 6. During the homologous recombination in cyst nuclei, type II topoisomerases assist in chromosome replication and tissue development for Giardia differentiation into dormant cysts. In addition, the levels of cyst formation and the cwp1-3 gene expression are increased by Topo II overexpression.

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15. Given the findings in the passage, which additional result would MOST strongly indicate that TGFBR1 and TGFBR2 regulate TGFβ-dependent LEC proliferation?

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16. The structure of lysine is shown below.

This molecule is best described as:

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17. After injury-induced cataract formation has begun, which of the following are LEAST likely to be found in nearby monocytes?

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18. Monocytes, in conjunction with epithelium-derived factors, can act to facilitate which biological process?

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Passage 4 (Questions 19 – 23)

19. Cataract generation triggered by lens injury is considered to be driven by the action of the proliferation and epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT) of lens epithelial cells (LECs) as a complication of injury and inflammation. The epithelium quickly expands, creating a hundredfold increase in the number of cells. In response to trauma, irritation, or surgery, cytokines and growth factors increase in the aqueous humor and stimulate LECs to proliferate and undergo EMT. This response is significantly diminished in organisms where EMT is inhibited by the inactivation of transforming growth factor β (TGFβ), especially TGFβ2, the major isoform in the aqueous humor.

During the process of EMT, LECs undergo cytoskeletal rearrangement, with the addition of a large amount of extracellular matrix proteins, such as collagen and fibronectin. In anterior cataracts, the proliferation and EMT of LECs in situ leads to the formation of opaque plaques just beneath the lens anterior capsule.

The production of TGFβ is regulated by histone deacetylase-1 (HDAC1). HDAC1 removes acetyl groups from N-acetyl lysine groups on histone. Once synthesized, TGFβ is secreted by activated monocytes in the aqueous humor. Since monocytes mediate almost 80 percent of local TGFβ concentrations, researchers tested the theory that TGFβ is responsible for monocyte impact on LEC production. The number of LECs expressing MIB1, a nuclear protein, was utilized as a measure of LEC proliferation and expected EMT.

Experiment 1

After simulated injury, monocyte/LEC cultures were treated with an antibody that lyses all but a negligible fraction of available monocytes; a division of these cultures was also treated with a TGFβ agonist. A second set of cell cultures was treated with antagonists of epithelial cell TGFβ receptors TGFBR1 and TGFBR2 (Table 1).

Table 1 Results of the study on monocyte lysis, TGF agonist, and TGF receptor antagonists

Experiment 2

In an effort to determine whether MIB1 is associated with LEC regulation, LEC density was assessed during the course of epithelial growth in wild-type and MIB1-null cell cultures (Figure 1).Figure 1 Growth of LECs after an injury in both wild-type and MIB1-null strains

 

HDAC1 MOST likely plays a direct role in:

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20. A molecule enters a cell and creates pores in the inner mitochondrial membrane. How will ATP generation as a result of oxidative phosphorylation be affected?

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21. Which of the following is an element of humoral immunity?

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22.
Questions 16-18 do not refer to a passage and are independent of each other.
Question 16

Which of the following is MOST likely to use a protein channel to cross the eukaryotic cell membrane?

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23. The symptoms of botulism took 12-18 hours to be observed in the patient after exposure was confirmed. How is this delay best explained?

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24. Which of the following is NOT a function of the sympathetic nervous system?

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25. Which molecule could be used to specifically detect toxin D in the cultures described in the passage?

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26. The easiest method to separate the two subunits of the botulinum protein for subsequent analytical purposes would be:

 

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27. A woman began canning her own jams as a hobby. She shared several cans of her jam with her mother for lunch. The next day, her mother was found suffering from blurry vision, difficulty swallowing and troubled breathing. Given the quick progression of symptoms, associated with the new food, the ER physician suspected botulism poisoning. Due to the danger and toxicity of botulism, tests were performed immediately to determine the best course of treatment.

The botulinum toxin is a neurotoxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. Botulism is a life-threatening illness in humans, although forms of the toxin are used for various cosmetic and medical procedures. The eight distinct toxin types are designated A to H. The botulinum toxin protein is a two-chain polypeptide with a 100-kDa heavy chain joined by a disulfide bond to a 50-kDa light chain. This light chain is a protease that attacks one of the fusion proteins (SNARE protein) present in neuromuscular junctions, preventing vesicles from anchoring with the cell membrane to release acetylcholine.

Figure 1 Mechanism of neuromuscular blockade by botulinum toxin

The tests employed to detect botulism include brain scans and nerve conduction tests. Toxicity testing of serum specimens, wound tissue cultures, and stool specimen cultures are the best methods for identifying botulism, though they are time-consuming. If the symptoms are diagnosed early, treatment can reduce the case fatality rate to less than 10%, while untreated botulism is fatal in nearly half of cases. A more rapid way to detect the toxin in humans utilizes mass spectrometry.

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28. The muscle of the dual-layered system described in the passage is:

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29. Which molecule is LEAST likely to be able to travel via the macula communicans pathway?

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30.

A certain medical condition impairs the function of the colonic chloride transporters discussed in the passage. What change would be expected in patients with this disorder?

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31. Studies show that macula communicans are common but NOT found as part of the tissues in the gallbladder or skeletal muscle. One possible explanation for this could be that these organs are:

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